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Gender theory question
Gender-theory kru, your attention please:
I came across the following recently, and wondered if any of you might have some idea of its source:
I came across the following recently, and wondered if any of you might have some idea of its source:
Gender is not like some of the other grammatical modes which express precisely a mode of conception without any reality that corresponds to the conceptual mode, and consequently do not express precisely something in reality by which the intellect could be moved to conceive a thing the way it does, even where that motive is not something in the thing as such.Any thoughts? And can someone tell me what it means?
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Does it? What evidence do we have for this?
I would have thought that apes could distinguish between male and female, long before they went on to evolve into beings with any concept of grammar.
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But since its unclear wtf the piece is really saying I may be wrong (though it's clearly untrue to say that the gender that French assigns objects expresses something in reality so would then be baffled as to what its point is).
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I believe Proto-Indo-European had two genders, active and neuter, which corresponded roughly to things which can act (people, animals, gods, etc) and things which can only be acted upon (rocks, houses, trees, etc). At some point this split further into three genders, then recombined, resplit, and so on.
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